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By the way, just one correction: Your comment on "jealous" is not accurate, as even dictionary.com uses it the same way:
"2. feeling resentment because of another's success, advantage, etc. (often followed by of):
He was jealous of his brother's wealth."
http://www.dictionary.com/browse/jealous?s=t
As it was localized in American English, this is technically a correct way to use it. It's not a mistake.
It was localized in American English, and this is an accepted use of the word within these rules.
It's not a mistake. You can't argue with the dictionary. That would be like me saying British English is wrong on its use of unique meanings because it doesn't apply to American English rules.
All the dictionary does here is acknowledge that the word is commonly used for a meaning that it shouldn't rightly have, and that's a completely reasonable and valid thing for a dictionary to do in attempting to keep up with modern language. But that doesn't mean incorrectly using a word is any less incorrect, and it doesn't change that the word that actually means envy is obviously a better fit to describe envy than the word that only means envy as a result of common error and is intended to describe something entirely different.
Seriously, I don't know what you are arguing about anymore. American and British English have different rules and acceptance on what is "correct" and what is not. The point is that you would have been correct if it was localized in British English, but it's not.
And for future reference, if a current dictionary accepts a new meaning of a word, it is considered "correct." But this changes over time, and this same meaning may not be correct in 20 years.
But about your other point, many words change in the English language because of errors of usage. It happens all the time. Words change meaning, and even revert to their opposites. That is language for you.
It's "technically" correct because an incorrect usage has fallen into the common vernacular. I disagree with your assessment that this makes it a valid usage. And you still didn't answer the question, so I guess there's no point in continuing this discussion.
"And this is subjective territory."
"The point stands that their usage of "jealous" is correct, and doesn't need to be changed."
Their usage of jealous is only correct in American English and is based on a common error and it is rather objective that using envy to mean envy makes more sense than using jealousy to mean envy. I'm not going to ask them to put all the missing Us back in the script but using the word that means what they're trying to say would not do any harm to either British English or American English users reading the script. But it seems rather clear that you're incredibly opposed to this change, for some reason, and we're not going to see eye to eye.
Why does it matter if it arose out of a "common error" as you say? This is how language adapts throughout time. And for the record, I'm not against the change, I'm simply arguing that you are wrong when you say that it is not correct.
Jealous is a synonym of envious. It has become this way in American English. You can refuse to accept it all you want, but it doesn't change that it has become an accepted usage. And when you say "it is wrong," in fact, it is you who are wrong, when speaking about the rules of American English.
But what can I say? You will continue to not see reality in this issue. I have even provided you proof via the dictionary. I have also checked Mirriam Webster along with Dictionary.com, and they both have the same usage listed. What else can I say?
Glad we could agree.
That said...eh, this is what they decided to do, and it doesn't hinder the impact of the story, in my opinion. In particular, the parts that are narrated are quite well written, and most characters have distinct personalities and character progression, which is enough to satisfy me.